Ccnp Dumps Free Download Pdf 2012
December 2, 2021 | | 300-825 CLCNF dumps, 300-825 exam dumps, 300-825 exam questions, 300-825 free dumps, 300-825 Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing, Cisco, Cisco CCNP Collaboration, Uncategorized | Tags: 300-825 Free Dumps, Cisco 300-825 CLCNF dumps, lead4pass 300-825 dumps, lead4pass 300-825 exam questions
The Cisco Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing exam code is "300-825". To obtain the 300-825 CLCNF exam certificate, you must pass the 300-825 exam. The exam is just a way to verify your learning results.
You must master the corresponding knowledge to face the following work. The CCNP Collaboration 300-825 exam belongs to one of the CCNP Collaboration exam series. Facing the certification exam, you need to master a lot of corresponding knowledge:
- Describe the Cisco conferencing architecture including cloud, hybrid, and on-premises conferencing
- Describe the physical deployment options and deployment models for Cisco Meeting Server, including Cisco Meeting Server 1000, 2000, and virtual machine
- Configure a Cisco Meeting Server single combined deployment for Web-Real Time Communications (WebRTC) endpoints within the enterprise
…
Get More->>
Yes! Obtaining 300-825 exam certification is not easy! Next, I will share some practical and effective exam questions to help you improve yourself.
Cisco 300-825 CLCNF free dumps
After the test is completed, compare the answers at the end of the article
Question 1:
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator troubleshoots an issue with Cisco Meeting Server. Endpoints that call from the remote site cannot connect, but endpoints that call from headquarters can connect. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Add a route for 192.168.10.0/24 to interface b.
B. Set interface b as the default interface.
C. Remove the route for 192.168.0.0/16 from interface b.
D. Enable DHCP on interface a but not on interface b.
Question 2:
An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server as a conference resource for Cisco UCM. Cisco UCM has a secure SIP trunk to Cisco Meeting Server, but the server does not register to Cisco UCM. Which configuration resolves this issue?
A. Ensure that the SIP trunk from Cisco UCM to Cisco Meeting Server is a secure trunk using port 5061.
B. Add Cisco Meeting Server to the Cisco UCM SIP trunk with an IP address and not an FQDN.
C. Set the Web Admin port on the Conference Bridge settings to match Cisco Meeting Server.
D. Configure an MRGL that contains Cisco Meeting Server to be associated with device pools.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213820-configure-cisco-meeting-server-and-cucm.html
Question 3:
Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 4938 v=0 o=Acano 0 0 IN IP4 10.0.101.120 s=c=IN IP4 10.0.101.120 b=CT:16 t=0 0 m=audio 50262 RTP/AVP 108 107 109 110 9 99 111 100 104 103 0 8 15 102 18 13 118 101 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_32 *******************************************************|2^48
m=video 50264 RTP/AVP 97 116 114 96 34 31 100 121 b=TIAS:16000 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_32 *******************************************************|2^48 a=content:main a=sendrecv a=sprop-source:1 count=2;policies=cs:1 a=sprop-simul:1 1 * a=rtcp-fb:* nack pli a=rtcp-fb:* ccm fir a=rtcp-fb:* ccm cisco-scr a=extmap:1 http://protocols.cisco.com/virtualid a=extmap:2 http://protocols.cisco.com/framemarking a=rtpmap:97 H264/90000 a=fmtp:97 profile-level-id=42800a;max-mpbs=489600;max-fs=8160;max-cpb=4000;max-dpd=4752;max-fps=6000
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?
A. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.
B. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.
C. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.
D. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.
Question 4:
CCNP Collaboration
false
8001
849274932
1234
XnKexB0yWQ2iwfuoCe6AWQ
2
Refer to the exhibit. When a user dials 8001 to connect to a space that is hosted on Cisco Meeting Server, the user is prompted for a pin. The prompt says the user should press # to connect to a meeting without a pin, but guests and hosts must enter a pin before connecting to the meeting.
Which configuration change resolves this issue?
A. The secret value must be changed to be solely numeric instead of alpha-numeric.
B. The passcode must be changed to be longer than four digits.
C. All access methods that are associated with the space must be changed to include a pin.
D. A callLegProfile must be created and associated with the space so that pins are not optional.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213552-configure-and-troubleshoot-guest-and-hos.html#anc10
Question 5:
An administrator wants to automatically schedule conferences with a cluster of Cisco Meeting Server devices that are managed with Cisco TMS. How should Cisco TMS be configured to accomplish this goal?
A. After the Cisco Meeting Server cluster is added, the Cisco TMS should failover an active conference to a different Cisco Meeting Server.
B. After the first Cisco Meeting Server is added, all servers in the cluster should automatically be detected.
C. When the first Cisco Meeting Server is added, the system name should automatically be detected.
D. After the Cisco Meeting Server cluster is added, the primary Cisco Meeting Server should automatically failover to another cluster member.
Question 6:
An engineer must configure Cisco Meeting Server integration to Cisco UCM. Which DNS A record must be configured to accomplish this goal?
A. Call Bridge
B. SRV
C. Conference Name
D. Cisco UCM Subscriber
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213821-configure-and-integrate-cms-single-combi.html
Question 7:
In the Cisco TMS GUI, a Cisco UCM registered system shows these error details:
Provisioning mode is set to Cisco UCM for this system.
The system cannot be refreshed or scheduled.
To manage this system as a Cisco TMS system, the provisioning mode needs to be changed to Cisco TMS.
To add the system as Cisco UCM managed system, it must be added through the Cisco UCM that is provisioning the system.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. Purge the system in Cisco TMS and add the system back directly to Cisco TMS using "Add by IP Address".
B. Restart Microsoft IIS on the Windows server that hosts Cisco TMS and perform a "Force Refresh" on the system.
C. Delete the system and add the system back with the "Add from Cisco UCM or Cisco TMS" option.
D. Update the credentials for the system in Cisco TMS.
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures Expressway-C to act as a proxy for a Cisco Meeting Server web app. Which configuration must exist on the Cisco Meeting Server that runs the web app to complete this integration?
A. web app running on port 445 B. HTTP redirect disabled on the web app
C. matching authentication combinations on the web app and Expressway-C
D. Common Name of "_cms-web._tls.join.darmckin.local" on the certificate in use
Question 9:
After performing an upgrade of the Cisco Meeting Server cluster, an engineer sees an error message indicating that Cisco Meeting Server is not licensed. Also, no spaces or users show in the GUI. What should be done to resolve this issue?
A. The database cluster upgrade_schema command must be run on the new database cluster master.
B. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded using the same file to upgrade all nodes.
C. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded with the database master being first and then all peers.
D. New database certificates must be generated for each peer in the cluster.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Release_Notes/Version-3-0/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Release-Notes-3-0.pdf
Question 10:
An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server with Expressway for external web app access and must enable participants to use the web app to join conferences that are hosted on the meeting server. Which service should be used in the Expressway-E accomplish this goal?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. SIP
C. XMPP server
D. TURN
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Deployment-Planning-and-Preparation-with-Expressway-Guide.pdf
Question 11:
A customer has a collaboration solution on-premises and is considering a cloud solution for the enterprise. Which collaboration method should be deployed to protect the existing investment and extend collaboration to the cloud?
A. Continue to use the on-premises solution and add a cloud solution in parallel.
B. Refresh hardware and software with the latest releases.
C. Decommission on-premises equipment and flash cut to a cloud solution.
D. Move to a hybrid that integrates an existing solution with a cloud solution.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en_in/solutions/collaboration/cloud-collaboration/index.html#~stickynav=1
Question 12:
An administrator performs a major upgrade of a Cisco Meeting Server cluster that contains multiple database nodes. Which step ensures that the Call Bridge can use the database?
A. The command database cluster initialize must be run on the master database node.
B. The master database node must be the first server to complete the upgrade process.
C. The command database cluster upgrade_schema must be run on the master database node.
D. The master database node must create a new database cluster and join the peer servers.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/210530-configure-cisco-meeting-server-call-brid.html
Question 13:
To which two places should an administrator go to view an upcoming meeting scheduled on Cisco Meeting Server? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Meeting Server MMP interface
B. Cisco Meeting Management meetings interface
C. Cisco Meeting Server web user interface
D. Cisco Meeting Server API
E. Cisco TMS interface
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/Cisco-Meeting-Management/User-Guide/Cisco-Meeting-Management-3-1-User-Guide-Video-Operator.pdf
Question 14:
What is the purpose of the Call Bridge service within Cisco Meeting Server?
A. It connects users from their web browsers into meetings that are hosted on Cisco Meeting Server.
B. It replicates database information between all nodes in the cluster.
C. It converts RTP media into MP4 files that can be distributed for replay.
D. It is the core conferencing service and manages media and signaling.
Question 15:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two features are supported in the Cisco Meeting Server recording and streaming solution? (Choose two.)
A. editing recordings
B. portal to access recordings
C. 1080p resolution for streaming
D. changing layouts
E. closed captioning in streaming
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/PA/mcp/DEPLOYMENT_MEETINGS-CWMS_to_CMS.pdf
Compare answers:
| Q1 | Q2 | Q3 | Q4 | Q5 | Q6 | Q7 | Q8 | Q9 | Q10 | Q11 | Q12 | Q13 | Q14 | Q15 |
| A | D | D | D | D | A | C | D | A | D | D | A | BC | D | DE |
These are just part of the Lead4pass 300-825 CLCNF dump, the complete actual exam dump is here: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-825.html (Total Questions: 60 Q&A)
Cisco exams are not simple. To pass the exam, you must know more about the exam. Of course, getting the Cisco certification is also a very proud thing. The certificate can help you get more, improve your quality of life and gain glory. Finally, I wish you success! Good luck will always be with you.
PS. Want more past Cisco 300-825 exam questions can be found in VceCert, you can refer to the study! Of course, you can also find more Cisco exam questions at Vcecert.com.
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There are so many people taking the Cisco 300-410 exam because this is a very popular exam!
To take the Cisco 300-410 exam first, you need to be prepared:
- Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Mastery of examination knowledge
- Preparation before the exam
- Pay the exam fee
- Schedule an exam
- After passing the exam
These are the most basic procedures, and you better know, this will save you a lot of trouble.
Next we answer one by one:
Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) exam contains the following knowledge points：
- Layer 3
- VPN services
- Infrastructure security
- Infrastructure services
- Infrastructure automation
Exam preparation:
I have a few preparation methods here:
- Study hard, you can get free exam content and exam practice questions through (Facebook, Twitter, Reddit, Quora, VCECERT)
- Participate in official Microsoft training: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/training/training-services/courses/implementing-cisco-enterprise-advanced-routing-and-services-enarsi.html. Of course, you can also search for more online training tutorials in Google.
- Get the latest updates and a valid Cisco 300-410 dumps (https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html).
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Above I have answered the Cisco exam process and methods, and then I will share some free Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions to help you understand your own strength.
Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions (Free test 13Q&A)
The answer is announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. MED
C. WEIGHT
D. AS-PATH
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is
configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for
more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?
A. Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool
B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value
C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value
D. Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the
time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
The Time zone needs to be changed. default it UTC Central European Time (CET)
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/router-log-timestamp-entries-are-different-from-the-systemclock/ta-p/3132258
QUESTION 4
A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it
will be the designated router?
A. tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr
B. OSPF priority to 0
C. route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110
D. OSPF priority greater than 1
By default, the priority is 1 on all routers so we can set the OSPF priority of the hub to a value which is greater than 1 to
make sure it would become the DR.
QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Down
This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor, but
hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router doesn\\'t receive
hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval = 4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
Attempt
This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends
unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead
interval.
Init
This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\'s ID was not
included in the hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list the sender\\'s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
2-Way
This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional means that each router has seen the other\\'s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\'s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether to become adjacent with this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all other neighbors.
On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers.
At the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiacess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also a cause a transition to 2-way state.
Exstart
Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the
routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a higher priority configured on the router instead of highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that a DR plays the role of slave. And also note that master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
Exchange
In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors contain linkstate advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each DBD packet has a sequence number which can be incremented only by master which is explicitly acknowledged by slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
Loading
In this state, the actual exchange of link state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the DBDs,
routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link- state information in link-state
update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by sending a linkstate request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
Full
In this state, routers are fully adjacent with each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the routers\\' databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state, which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to- point and point-to-multipoint.
Note: The DR and BDR that achieve FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/DROTHER when
you enter the show ip ospf neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR
or BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/DROTHER.
Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\'s ID was not
included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Exstart: Once the DR and
BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the routers and their DR
and BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
QUESTION 6
What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf
A. Show\\'s default RD values
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Show\\'s routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibits. A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator
cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?
A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF
C. only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
D. only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1
QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the packet types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Unlike legacy network technologies such as ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM that defined separate data and control
channels, IP carries all packets within a single pipe. Thus, IP network devices such as routers and switches must be
able to distinguish between data plane, control plane, and management plane packets to treat each packet
appropriately. From an IP traffic plane perspective, packets may be divided into four distinct, logical groups:
1.
Data plane packets -End-station, user-generated packets that are always forwarded by network devices to other endstation devices. From the perspective of the network device, data plane packets always have a transit destination IP
address and can be handled by normal, destination IP address- based forwarding processes.
2.
Control plane packets -Network device generated or received packets that are used for the creation and operation of
the network itself. From the perspective of the network device, control plane packets always have a receive destination
IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route processor. Examples include protocols such as
ARP, BGP, OSPF, and other protocols that glue the network together.
3.
Management plane packets -Network device generated or received packets, or management station generated or
received packets that are used to manage the network. From the perspective of the network device, management plane
packets always have a receive destination IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route
processor. Examples include protocols such as Telnet, Secure Shell (SSH), TFTP, SNMP, FTP, NTP, and other
protocols used to manage the device and/or network.
4.
Services plane packets -A special case of data plane packets, services plane packets are also user- generated packets
that are also forwarded by network devices to other end-station devices, but that require high-touch handling by the
network device (above and beyond normal, destination IP address-based forwarding) to forward the packet.
Examples of high-touch handling include such functions as GRE encapsulation, QoS, MPLS VPNs, and SSL/IPsec
encryption/decryption, etc. From the perspective of the network device, services plane packets may have a transit
destination IP address, or may have a receive destination IP address (for example, in the case of a VPN tunnel
endpoint).
Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting OSPF adjacency issue by going through the console
logs in the router, but due to an overwhelming log messages stream, it is impossible to capture the problem. Which two commands reduce console log messages to relevant OSPF neighbor problem details so that the issue can be resolved? (Choose two.)
A. debug condition ospf neighbor
B. debug condition interface
C. debug condition session-id ADJCHG
D. debug condition all
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?
A. Pop the label
B. Impose the label
C. Include the EXP bit
D. Exclude the EXP bit
The imp-null (implicit null) tag instructs the upstream router to pop the tag entry off the tag stack before forwarding the packet. Note: pop means remove the top MPLS label
QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?
A. router ospf 1 default-information originate
B. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. router ospf 1 redistribute connected 0.0.0.0
D. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets
QUESTION 13
Which configuration adds an IPv4 interface to an OSPFv3 process in OSPFv3 address family configuration?
A. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4
B. Router(config-router)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0
C. Router(config-if)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0
D. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 unicast
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/xe-3s/iro-xe-3s-book/ip6-routeospfv3-add-fam-xe.html
Verify answer:
| Q1 | Q2 | Q3 | Q4 | Q5 | Q6 | Q7 | Q8 | Q9 | Q10 | Q11 | Q12 | Q13 |
| A | B | C | D | image | A | D | A | image | AB | A | A | D |
The complete Cisco 300-410 exam dump has Total Questions: 254 Q&A, please visit https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html
Cisco 300-410 exam PDF, 13Q&A free download
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November 15, 2021 | admin | Microsoft, Microsoft Role-based, sc-400 dumps, sc-400 exam dumps, sc-400 exam questions, sc-400 Microsoft Information Protection Administrator, sc-400 practice test, Uncategorized | Tags: lead4pass sc-400 dumps, lead4pass sc-400 dumps pdf, lead4pass sc-400 dumps vce, lead4pass sc-400 exam questions
The Microsoft SC-400 exam dumps have been updated, and all exam questions and answers are guaranteed to be true and valid.
We update the Microsoft SC-400 test questions throughout the year,
and share some of the Microsoft SC-400 test questions for free to help everyone improve their strength!
The complete Microsoft SC-400 dumps can be obtained directly from the Lead4Pass SC-400 product page https://www.lead4pass.com/sc-400.html. If you want to get free practice questions before Microsoft SC-400 or more free practice questions from other Microsoft series, you can visit the Microsoft Free Practice Questions blog.
Next, I will share the free updated Microsoft SC-400 exam practice questions in November
Microsoft SC-400 exam practice questions online test
The answer is announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant.
Data loss prevention (DLP) policies are applied to Exchange email, SharePoint sites, and OneDrive accounts locations.
You need to use PowerShell to retrieve a summary of the DLP rule matches from the last seven days.
Which PowerShell module and cmdlet should you use?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/get-dlpdetectionsreport?view=exchange-ps
QUESTION 2
You need to be alerted when users share sensitive documents from Microsoft OneDrive to any users outside your company.
What should you do?
A. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
B. From the Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure Al)) Identity Protection
C. From the Microsoft 36h compliance? center, create an insider risk policy.
D. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, start a data investigation.
QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses a domain named contoso.
The company uses Microsoft Office 365 Message Encryption (OMI ) to encrypt email sent to users in fabrikam.com.
A user named User1 erroneously sends an email to [email protected] You need to disable [email protected]
from accessing the email.
What should you do?
A. Run the New-ComplianceSearchAction cmdlet.
B. Instruct User1 to delete the email from her Sent Items folder from Microsoft Outlook.
C. Run the Get-MessageTrace Cmdlet.
D. Run the Set-OMEMessageRevocation Cmdlet.
E. instruct User1 to select Remove external access from Microsoft Outlook on the web.
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft SharePoint Online site that contains the following files.
Which files can User1 and User2 view?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution that meets the compliance requirements for Dropbox.
What should you recommend?
QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses Microsoft Teams.
You create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy to prevent Microsoft Teams users from sharing sensitive information.
You need to identify which locations must be selected to meet the following requirements:
1. Documents that contain sensitive information must not be shared inappropriately in Microsoft Teams.
2. If a user attempts to share sensitive information during a Microsoft Teams chat session, the message must be deleted immediately.
Which three locations should you select? To answer, select the appropriate locations in the answer area. (Choose
three.)
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/dlp-microsoft-teams?view=o365-worldwide
QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 E5 tenant.
You create sensitivity labels as shown in the Sensitivity Labels exhibit.
The Confidential/External sensitivity label is configured to encrypt files and emails when applied to content.
The sensitivity labels are published as shown in the Published exhibit.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true.
Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant.
The company performs annual employee assessments.
The assessment results are recorded in a document named Assessment I cmplatc.docx that is created by using Microsoft Word template.
Copies of the employee assessments are sent to employees and their managers.
The assessment copies are stored in mailboxes, Microsoft SharePoint Online sites, and OneDrive for Business folders.
A copy of each assessment is also stored in a SharePoint Online folder named Assessments.
You need to create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that prevents the employee assessments from being emailed to external users.
You will use a document fingerprint to identify the assessment documents.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Create a fingerprint of AssessmentTemplate.docx.
B. Create a sensitive info type that uses Exact Data Match (EDM).
C. Create a fingerprint of TOO sample documents in the Assessments folder.
D. Import TOO sample documents from the Assessments folder to a seed folder.
QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses a domain named canstoso.com.
A user named User1 leaves your company. The mailbox of User1 is placed on Litigation Hold, and then the account of User1 is deleted from Azure Active Directory (Azure AD).
You need to copy the content of the User1 mailbox to a folder in the existing mailbox of another user named User2.
How should you complete the PowerShell command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to configuration the Microsoft 365 Records management settings by using the CSV file must meet the compliance requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. From the Microsoft 365 compliance center, import the CSV file to a file plan.
B. Use EdmUploadAgent.exe to upload a hash of the CSV to a datastore.
C. Use a PowerShell command that pipes the import csv cmdlet to the New-RetentionPolicy cmdlet.
D. Use a PowerShell command that pipes the import-csv cmdlet to the New-Label cmdlet.
QUESTION 11
You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses the following sensitivity labels:
1.Confidential
2.Internal
3. External
The labels are published by using a label policy named Policy1.
Users report that Microsoft Office for the wen apps do not display the Sensitivity button. The Sensitivity button appears in Microsoft 365 Apps that are installed locally.
You need to ensure that the users can apply sensitivity labels to content when they use Office for the web apps.
Solution: You run the Execute-AzureAdLabelSync cmdlet.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
QUESTION 12
You are configuring a retention label named Label1 as shown in the following exhibit.
You need to ensure that documents that have Label1 applied are deleted three years after the end of your company\\'s
fiscal year.
What should you do?
A. Create a new event type.
B. Select Only delete items when they reach a certain age.
C. Modify the Retention period setting.
D. Set At the ends of the retention period to Trigger a disposition review.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/event-driven-retention?view=o365-worldwide
QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
You have a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that has the advanced DLP rules shown in the following table.
You need to identify which rules will apply when content matches multiple advanced DLP rules.
Which rules should you identify?
To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/data-loss-preventionpolicies?view=o365-worldwide
Verify answer：
| Q1 | Q2 | Q3 | Q4 | Q5 | Q6 | Q7 | Q8 | Q9 | Q10 | Q11 | Q12 | Q13 |
| image | B | C | image | A | image | image | D | image | B | A | A | image |
PS. Microsoft SC-400 Exam PDF
Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1SAkevzIjPydK4vixVLjI4Yol1Ca4gDwl/
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October 12, 2021 | admin | 350-401 ENCOR, 350-401 exam dumps, 350-401 exam questions, 350-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies, 350-401 practice test, Cisco, cisco ccnp, Uncategorized | Tags: lead4pass 350-401 dumps, lead4pass 350-401 dumps pdf, lead4pass 350-401 dumps vce, lead4pass 350-401 exam questions
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Latest Updated Cisco 350-401 Online Practice Test
The latest Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions are from the dumps part of Lead4Pass 350-401,
and the answers to the questions will be announced at the end of the article
QUESTION 1
Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two )
A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center
B. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect
C. User connectivity is unaffected.
D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.
E. Users lose connectivity
QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug IP BGP vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can
see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
A. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted
B. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3
C. address-family ipv4 or is not configured on PE3
D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering
E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted
Because some PE routers might receive routing information they do not require, a basic requirement is to be able to
filter the MP-iBGP updates at the ingress to the PE router so that the router does not need to keep this information in
memory. The Automatic Route Filtering feature fulfills this filtering requirement. This feature is available by default on all PE routers, and no additional configuration is necessary to enable it. Its function is to filter automatically VPN-IPv4
routes that contain a route-target extended community that does not match any of the PE\'s configured VRFs. This effectively discards any unwanted VPN-IPv4 routes silently, thus reducing the amount of information that the PE has to store in memory -> Answer \' PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering\' is correct.
Reference:
MPLS and VPN Architectures Book, Volume 1
The reason that PE1 dropped the route is there is no "route-target import 999:999" command on PE1 (so we see the
"DENIED due to the extended community not supported" in the debug) so we need to type this command to accept this route -> Answer \' After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted\' is correct.
QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec
profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).
A. Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode IPSec ipv4.
B. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.
C. Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.
D. Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL |>]
E. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface
QUESTION 4
Which function does a fabric AP perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
A. It updates wireless clients' locations in the fabric
B. It connects wireless clients to the fabric.
C. It manages wireless clients' membership information in the fabric
D. It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric
QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A. The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS
QUESTION 6
Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {"cat_9k": "FXS193202SE")?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
QUESTION 7
What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?
A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete
C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes
QUESTION 8
Which IPv6 migration method relies on dynamic tunnels that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space?
A. GRE
B. 6RD
C. 6to4
D. ISATAP
6to4 tunnel is a technique which relies on reserved address space 2002::/16 (you must remember this range). These
tunnels determine the appropriate destination address by combining the IPv6 prefix with the globally unique destination 6to4 border router\'s IPv4 address, beginning with the 2002::/16 prefix, in this format: 2002:border-routerIPv4-address::/48 For example, if the border-router-IPv4-address is 64.101.64.1, the tunnel interface will have an IPv6 prefix of 2002:4065:4001:1::/64, where 4065:4001 is the hexadecimal equivalent of 64.101.64.1. This technique allows IPv6 sites to communicate with each other over the IPv4 network without explicit tunnel setup but we have to implement it on all routers on the path.
QUESTION 9
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Link aggregation (LAG) is a partial implementation of the 802.3ad port aggregation standard. It bundles all of the
controller\'s distribution system ports into a single 802.3ad port channel. Restriction for Link aggregation:
- LAG requires the EtherChannel to be configured for 'mode on' on both the controller and the Catalyst switch. …
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?
A. STP BPDU guard is enabled
B. A description "RSPAN" is added
C. They are placed into an inactive state
D. They cannot provide PoE
QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Marking = applied on traffic to convey Information to a downstream device Classification = distinguish traffic types Trust = Permits traffic to pass through the device while retaining DSCP/COS values shaping = process used to buffer traffic that exceeds a predefined rate
QUESTION 12
An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer
must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points
are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP
scope on the switch as follows:
The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?
A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205
B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205
C. configure DNS-server 172.16.50.5
D. configure DNS-server 172.16.100.1
172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: "TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type +
Length + Value. Type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses
times 4 in hex.
Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two
controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2*4 = 8 =
0x08. The IP addresses translates to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is
assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command
that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14."
Reference:
Click Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be "F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).
QUESTION 13
If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?
A. router with the highest priority
B. router with the highest loopback address
C. router with the lowest loopback address
D. router with the lowest priority
QUESTION 14
A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands
Sampler Netflow1 Mode random one-out-of 100 Interface FastEthernet 1/0 Flow-sampler netflow1
Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)
A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.
B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported
C. The data export flow is more secure.
D. The number of packets to be analyzed is reduced
E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved
QUESTION 15
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane
The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses
EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic
across the underlying WAN architecture.
EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within
the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP
for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \' OTP uses
LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\' is not correct.
In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP
control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \' LISP learns the next hop\' is not
correct). Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running
OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as
RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\'s take an example:
If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the
prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.
Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. On both routers, this information
would be used to populate the LISP mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at
R1 would use its LISP mapping tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP
encapsulated and tunneled toward 198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not
change; however, the native LISP mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE
Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition
Publish the answer：
| Q1 | Q2 | Q3 | Q4 | Q5 | Q6 | Q7 | Q8 | Q9 | Q10 | Q11 | Q12 | Q13 | Q14 | Q15 |
| CD | AD | AE | B | B | D | B | C | C | C | image | A | A | AD | C |
This is just a small test, and more questions are needed to pass the Cisco 350-401 exam. For the complete Cisco 350-401 exam dumps, please visit https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (Total Questions: 569 Q&A).
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July 8, 2021 | admin | 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR), Cisco, cisco 350-701, cisco 350-701 discount code, cisco 350-701 exam dumps, cisco 350-701 exam questions, cisco 350-701 practice test, cisco ccnp | Tags: 350-701 discount code, 350-701 dumps, 350-701 pdf, 350-701 scor dumps, 350-701 scor dumps pdf
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latest Updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and Answer
QUESTION 1
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration personA.
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html
QUESTION 3
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. network discovery
B. correlation
C. intrusion
D. access control
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Introduction_to_Network_Discovery.pdf
QUESTION 4
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
A. Cisco SDA
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco HyperFlex
D. Cisco Cloudlock
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlock-clouddata-securitydatasheet.pdf
QUESTION 5
Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. automated email encryption
B. applying a real-time URI blacklist
C. automated malware analysis
D. monitoring network traffic
Correct Answer: C
…
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Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) – website: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/scor-350-701.html
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Micvce Exam Table of Contents:
- Cisco 350-701 Practice testing questions from Youtube
- latest updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers
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- About lead4pass
Cisco 350-701 Practice testing questions from Youtube
latest updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection
QUESTION 3
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe
must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
A. Nexus
B. Stealthwatch
C. Firepower
D. Tetration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/security/secure-data-center-solution/index.html#~products
QUESTION 6
Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are
likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
A. group policy
B. access control policy
C. device management policy
D. platform service policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/622/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev622/platform_settings_policies_for_managed_devices.pdf
QUESTION 7
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
(Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. inline normalization
C. SSL
D. packet decoder
E. modbus
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html
QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 10
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html
QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d
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QUESTION 13
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x page authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-commandreference/802_1x_commands.html
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QUESTION 1
A user with minimal privileges forgets to enter customer payments for the previous 15 days. The user needs to enter all
the payments using a previous date instead of the current date. What should the user do?
A. Change the date of the user session in the session date form.
B. Change the system date on the user\\'s operating system and restart the browser.
C. Change the date of the customer payment journal header.
D. Change the system date of the Application Object Server (AOS) in system administration.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organizationadministration/tasks/change-date-session
QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).
You need to create a new calendar named Work Week that will be defined as follows:
1.
Open from Monday to Friday from 09:00 to 17:00
2.
Closed all day Saturday and Sunday
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer:
You need to create a working time template and a working time calendar.
Create the template:
1.
Click Organization administration > Common > Calendars > Working time templates. Click New to create a new line.
2.
On the Overview tab, in the Working time template field, enter an alphanumeric identifier of up to 10 characters.
3.
In the Name field, enter a descriptive name for the template.
4.
Select the tab that corresponds to the day of the week that you want to define working hours for, and click Add to create
a new line.
5.
In the From field, enter the starting time for the day or the period (09:00).
6.
In the To field, enter the ending time for the day or the period (17:00)
7.
Repeat steps 4 through 6 for each day of the week ensuring that Saturday and Sunday are marked as closed then save
the template.
Create the calendar:
1.
Click Organization administration > Common > Calendars > Calendars.
2.
On the toolbar, click New to create a new line.
3.
In the Calendar field, enter a unique identifier of up to ten characters.
4.
In the Name field, enter Work Week.
5.
Click Working times, and then click Compose working times to create or update working times for the calendar.
6.
In the Calendar field, select the name of the calendar (Work Week) to compose working times for.
7.
In the From date field, enter the first date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains the current date.
8.
In the To date field, enter the last date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains a date that is one
year from the current date.
9.
In the Working time template field, select the template you created. 10. Click OK.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-working-time-templates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-working-time-calendars
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You want to enhance usability in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for an organization.
You need to set up filters to help people find records that are used regularly.
Which filter expressions should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 1
You need to connect the Excel instance to the Relecloud production instance. What should you do?
A. Set the server URL to Microsoft.Dynamics.Platform.Integration.Office.UrlViewerApplet.
B. Set the server URL to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com.
C. Set the App Correlation ID to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com.
D. Set the App Correlation ID to the App Id in the Dynamics 365 Office App Parameters.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/office-integration/use-excel-addin
QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). You plan to import customers from an
old legacy system to USMF.
You need to identify the format used for the customer details v2 entity by creating an export job. The solution must use a
Microsoft Excel data format and Contoso Europe. To validate your results, save the file in Microsoft Excel format to the
Downloads\Customer folder.
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal. NOTE: To complete this task, you must configure the Shared working directory for the Framework parameters to C:\users\public\documents\.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
1.
Navigate to System Administration>; Workspaces>; Data management.
2.
Click the Framework parameters tile.
3.
In the Shared working directory field, enter C:\users\public\documents\ then click Validate.
4.
Click the Export tile.
5.
In the Name field, enter a name for the export job.
6.
In the Entity Name field, select the Customer details v2 entity.
7.
Click on Add entity.
8.
In the Target data format field, select EXCEL.
9.
Set the Skip staging option to No.
10.Click the Add button.
11.Click Export to begin the export.
12.Click on Download package.
13.Select the Downloads\Customer folder as the location to save the downloaded file.
QUESTION 3
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
The implementation team must build acceptance scripts to make sure that common business use cases can be
performed in the new system. They must test use cases by stepping through required tasks, organized by functional
hierarchy.
You need to create User Acceptance Testing (UAT) tests in Lifecycle Services (LCS) that can be easily repeatable.
What should you use?
A. Task recorder
B. APQC Unified Library
C. Asset library
D. Configuration data manager
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-tocreate-user-acceptance-tests
QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
A company named Contoso, Ltd. plans to create a new legal entity for a new division that has a financial period close of
March 31.
You need to create a new calendar for the planned legal entity. To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365
portal.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
1.
Go to Navigation pane>; Modules>; General Ledger>; Ledger Setup>; Fiscal Calendars.
2.
Click the New Calendar button.
3.
In the Calendar field, enter a name for the calendar. ?In the Description field, enter a description for the calendar.
4.
In the Start of the fiscal year field, select April 1st. ? At the End of the fiscal year field, select March 31st.
5.
In the Length of period field, enter 1.
6.
In the Unit field, select Year.
7.
Click the Create button to create the calendar.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/create-fiscal-calendars-years-periods-dyn365-finance/3-create
QUESTION 5
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are responsible for creating a custom feature within a solution by using Microsoft Azure DevOps. Testers have
found a bug while running one of the User Acceptance Testing (UAT) scripts. However, it is not a high-severity bug and
has
been found to not have interconnected dependencies to other branches within the process flow.
You need to deploy the passed functionality features.
What should you do?
A. Exclude the specific package from the deployable package in Microsoft Azure DevOps.
B. Exclude the specific package from the data package in the Data management tool.
C. Exclude the specific package from the deployable package in the Configuration data manager.
D. Exclude the specific package from the Business process modeler (BPM).
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You work with a systems administrator for Dynamics 365 Finance.
The system has been configured to prompt users for how they want to send emails based on the given scenario they
are encountering. In certain situations, they will want to generate an email to forward to an account executive who
doesn\\'t
have access to Dynamics 365 Finance. Other times, the emails should be either sent as an attachment to a user email
or through a generic no-reply email.
You need to determine which configuration to provide to the file system administrator for the given scenario.
Which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 7
you need 10 to determine the different entities that sales managers can use to import data to an initial Excel template.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point
A. Explore the Dynamics 365 database schema
B. Explore the Data distribution framework jobs.
C. Explore the Excel Workbook Designer records.
D. Explore the data entities in the Data Management Workspace.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
A client uses Dynamics 365 Finance.
You need to configure a workflow to allow users to approve or deny workflow tasks from outside the system.
What should you configure?
A. a business event and a Microsoft PowerApps workflow
B. a standard notification in workflows
C. a standard date-based alert
D. a business event a Microsoft Flow workflow
E. a standard changed-based alert
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 9
You manage a Dynamics 365 Finance environment. Users report slow queries, deadlocks, and crashes. You need to identify which tool to use to troubleshoot. What should you use?
A. Environment monitoring
B. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Connect Health Agent
C. System diagnostics
D. DirectQuery
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/axsa/2018/06/05/how-to-use-environment-monitoring-view-raw-logs/
QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator.
Microsoft recently released a new feature for the public preview that would add significant value to your organization without
licensing adjustments.
You need to enable the feature.
Where can you enable the preview feature?
A. Solution management
B. Lifecycle Services
C. Organizational administration module
D. experience.dynamics.com
E. System administration module
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/get-started/public-preview-releases
QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You manage a Dynamics 365 Finance environment.
In preparation for being migrated into a new environment, data packages are being numbered in alignment with the
default numbering formats in Lifecycle Services. A package is named 03.01.002.
You need to identify what this package contains. To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lcs-solutions/process-datapackages-lcs-solutions
QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at
any given time.
You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment,
you are unable to find the data entity in the list.
You need to locate the data entity.
Solution: Restart the Application Object Server (AOS) of the test environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance and uses Lifecycle Services (LCS). The company uses both standards
and customized functionality.
Testers have reported problems using the recent User Acceptance Testing (UAT) round.
You need to resolve these issues before UAT can proceed.
Which tools should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 1
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign-in box and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Azure Username: [email protected]
Azure Password: KJn29!aBBB
If the Azure portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10989444
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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory domain and an Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD).
Employees are required to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a
solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement
an
identity provider.
You need to provide guidance on the different identity providers.
How should you describe each identity provider? To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Azure AD Domain Services for hybrid organizations
Organizations with a hybrid IT infrastructure consume a mix of cloud resources and on-premises resources. Such
organizations synchronize identity information from their on-premises directory to their Azure AD tenant. As hybrid
organizations look to migrate more of their on-premises applications to the cloud, especially legacy directory-aware
applications, Azure AD Domain Services can be useful to them.
Example: Litware Corporation has deployed Azure AD Connect, to synchronize identity information from its on-premises directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, their
credential
hashes for authentication (password hash sync) and group memberships.
User accounts, group memberships, and credentials from Litware\\'s on-premises directory are synchronized to Azure
AD via Azure AD Connect. These user accounts, group memberships, and credentials are automatically available within
the
managed domain.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials.
You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and
authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed
QUESTION 2
Your company plans to publish APIs for its services by using Azure API Management.
You discover that service responses include the AspNet-Version header.
You need to recommend a solution to remove AspNet-Version from the response of the published APIs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a new product
B. a modification to the URL scheme
C. a new policy
D. a new revision
Correct Answer: C
Set a new transformation policy to transform an API to strip response headers.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/transform-api
QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy a network-intensive application to several Azure virtual machines.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
Minimizes the use of the virtual machine processors to transfer data
Minimizes network latency
Which virtual machine size and the feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sizes-hpc#h-series
QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for configuring the Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) settings.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 5
Your company purchases an app named App1.
You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3.
The number of update domains is set to 20.
You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance.
How many App1 instances should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there is 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 updates domain with no VM).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability
QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster. The cluster contains Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016
Datacenter. The hosts are licensed under a Microsoft Enterprise Agreement that has Software Assurance.
The Hyper-V cluster contains 30 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each virtual machine runs a
different workload. The workloads have predictable consumption patterns.
You plan to replace the virtual machines with Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. The virtual
machines will be sized according to the consumption pattern of each workload.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the compute costs of the Azure virtual machines.
Which two recommendations should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Configure a spending limit in the Azure account center.
B. Create a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
C. Activate Azure Hybrid Benefit for the Azure virtual machines.
D. Purchase Azure Reserved Virtual Machine Instances for the Azure virtual machines.
E. Create a lab in Azure DevTest Labs and place the Azure virtual machines in the lab.
Correct Answer: CD
C: For customers with Software Assurance, Azure Hybrid Benefit for Windows Server allows you to use your on-premises Windows Server licenses and run Windows virtual machines on Azure at a reduced cost. You can use Azure
Hybrid Benefit for Windows Server to deploy new virtual machines with Windows OS.
D: With Azure Reserved VM Instances (RIs) you reserve virtual machines in advance and save up to 80 percent.
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/reserved-vm-instances/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/hybrid-use-benefit-licensing
QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?
A. Configure geo-replication of the database.
B. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
C. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share, and you configure an access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead of a file share, immutable Blob storage is required.
Time-based retention policy support: Users can set policies to store data for a specified interval. When a time-based retention policy is set, blobs can be created and read, but not modified or deleted. After the retention period has
expired,
blobs can be deleted but not overwritten.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.
Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in an immutable state.
The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.
Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
3.
To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4.
Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage
QUESTION 9
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you should deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile.
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. a SendGrid account with advanced reporting
B. Azure AD Connect Health
C. Azure Network Watcher
D. an action group
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-health-operations
QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your company is designing a multi-tenant application that will use elastic pools and Azure SQL databases. The
application will be used by 30 customers.
You need to design a storage solution for the application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Operational costs must be minimized.
All customers must have their own database.
The customer databases will be in one of the following three Azure regions: East US, North Europe, or South Africa
North.
What are the minimum number of elastic pools and Azure SQL Database servers required? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: 3
The server, its pools, and databases must be in the same Azure region under the same subscription.
Box 2: 3
A server can have up to 5000 databases associated with it.
Reference:
https://vincentlauzon.com/2016/12/18/azure-sql-elastic-pool-overview/
QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share and snapshots.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you could create an Azure Blob storage container, and configure a legal hold access policy.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage
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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
1.
a virtual network named VNet1
2.
a replication policy named ReplPoHcy1
3.
a Recovery Services vault named Vault1
4.
an Azure Storage account named Storage1
You have an Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to migrate VM1 to VNet1 by using Azure Site Recovery.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Select and Place:
…
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Microsoft az-303 Practice testing questions from Youtube
latest updated Microsoft az-303 exam questions and answers
QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant linked to an Azure subscription. The tenant contains a group
named Admins.
You need to prevent users, except for the members of Admins, from using the Azure portal and Azure PowerShell to
access the subscription.
What should you do?
A. From Azure AD, configure the User settings.
B. From the Azure subscription, assign an Azure policy.
C. From Azure AD, create a conditional access policy.
D. From the Azure subscription, configure Access control (IAM).
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You plan to create an Azure Storage account in the Azure region of East US 2.
You need to create a storage account that meets the following requirements:
Replicates synchronously
Remains available if a single data center in the region fails
How should you configure the storage account? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates your data synchronously across three storage clusters in a single region.
LRS would not remain available if a data center in the region fails
GRS and RA GRS use asynchronous replication.
Box 2: StorageV2 (general purpose V2)
ZRS only supports GPv2.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-zrs
QUESTION 3
You need to recommend an identity solution that meets the technical requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. password hash synchronization and single sign-on (SSO)
B. federated single sign-on (SSO) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. Pass-through Authentication and single sign-on (SSO)
D. cloud-only user accounts
Correct Answer: C
With Pass-through Authentication, the on-premises passwords are never stored in the cloud in any form.
Scenario:
Prevent user passwords or hashes of passwords from being stored in Azure.
Ensure that when users join devices to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), the users use a mobile phone to verify their
identity.
Minimize administrative effort whenever possible.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta
QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), tenant
named adatum.onmicrosoft.com.
Adatum.com contains the user accounts in the following table.
Adatum.onmicrosoft.com contains the user accounts in the following table.
You need to implement Azure AD Connect. The solution must follow the principle of least privilege.
Which user accounts should you use in Adatum.com and Adatum.onmicrosoft.com to implement Azure AD Connect? To
answer select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: User5
In Express settings, the installation wizard asks for the following:
AD DS Enterprise Administrator credentials
Azure AD Global Administrator credentials
The AD DS Enterprise Admin account is used to configure your on-premises Active Directory. These credentials are
only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has completed. The Enterprise Admin, not the
Domain
Admin should make sure the permissions in Active Directory can be set in all domains.
Box 2: UserA
Azure AD Global Admin credentials are only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has
completed. It is used to create the Azure AD Connector account used for synchronizing changes to Azure AD. The
account
also enables sync as a feature in Azure AD.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/connect/active-directory-aadconnect-accounts-permissions
QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the user groups shown in the following table.
You enable self-service password reset (SSPR) for Group1.
You configure the Notifications settings as shown in the following exhibit.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Box 1: Yes
Notify all admins when other admins reset their passwords: Yes.
Box 2: No
Notify users on password resets: No.
Box 3: No Notify users on password resets
If this option is set to Yes, then users resetting their password receive an email notifying them that their password has
been changed. The email is sent via the SSPR portal to their primary and alternate email addresses that are on file in
Azure AD. No one else is notified of the reset event. Notify all admins when other admins reset their passwords
If this option is set to Yes, then all administrators receive an email to their primary email address on file in Azure AD.
The email notifies them that another administrator has changed their password by using SSPR.
Example: There are four administrators in an environment. Administrator A resets their password by using SSPR.
Administrators B, C, and D receive an email alerting them of the password reset.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-enable-sspr
QUESTION 6
You have an Azure Cosmos DB account named Account1. Account1 includes a database named DB1 that contains a
container named Container 1. The partition key tor Container1 is set to /city.
You plan to change the partition key for Container1
What should you do first?
A. Delete Container1
B. Create a new container in DB1
C. Regenerate the keys for Account1.
D. Implement the Azure CosmosDB.NET SDK
Correct Answer: B
The good news is that there are two features, the Change Feed Processor and Bulk Executor Library, in Azure Cosmos
DB that can be leveraged to achieve a live migration of your data from one container to another. This allows you to
redistribute your data to match the desired new partition key scheme, and make the relevant application changes afterward, thus achieving the effect of "updating your partition key".
Reference:
https://devblogs.microsoft.com/cosmosdb/how-to-change-your-partition-key/
QUESTION 7
You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named Clus1 in a resource group named RG1.
An administrator plans to manage Clus1 from an Azure AD-joined device.
You need to ensure that the administrator can deploy the YAML application manifest file for a container application.
You install the Azure CLI on the device.
Which command should you run next?
A. kubectl get nodes
B. az aks install-CLI
C. kubectl apply –f app1.YAML
D. az aks get-credentials –resource-group RG1 –name Clus1
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://kubernetes.io/docs/reference/kubectl/overview/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/aks
QUESTION 8
You have two Azure SQL Database managed instances in different Azure regions.
You plan to configure the managed instances in an instance failover group.
What should you configure before you can add the managed instances to the instance failover group?
A. Azure Private Link that has endpoints on two virtual networks
B. A Site-to-Site VPN between the virtual networks that contain the instances.
C. An Azure Application Gateway that has managed instance endpoints in a backend pool.
D. An internal Azure Load Balancer instance that has managed instance endpoints in a backend pool.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9
You need to meet the user requirement for Admin1. What should you do?
A. From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription and then modify the Properties.
B. From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription and then modify the Access control (IAM) settings.
C. From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Properties.
D. From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Groups.
Correct Answer: A
Change the Service administrator for an Azure subscription
Sign in to Account Center as the Account administrator.
Select a subscription.
On the right side, select Edit subscription details.
Scenario: Designate a new user named Admin1 as the service administrator of the Azure subscription.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator
QUESTION 10
You are designing an Azure solution.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
*
Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules
*
Provide SSL offloading capabilities
You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic.
Which technology should you recommend?
A.
server-level firewall rules
B.
Azure Application Gateway
C.
Azure Traffic Manager
D.
Azure Load Balancer
Correct Answer: B
If you require "SSL offloading", application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you
should use Azure\\'s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balancer. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview
QUESTION 11
You create a container image named Image1 on a developer workstation.
You plan to create an Azure Web App for Containers named WebAppContainer that will use Image1.
You need to upload Image1 to Azure. The solution must ensure that WebAppContainer can use Image1.
To which storage type should you upload Image1?
A. Azure Container Registry
B. an Azure Storage account that contains a blob container
C. an Azure Storage account that contains a file share
D. Azure Container Instances
Correct Answer: A
Configure registry credentials in the web app.
App Service needs information about your registry and image to pull the private image. In the Azure portal, go to
Container settings from the web app and update the Image source, Registry and save.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/targets/webapp-on-container-linux
QUESTION 12
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter
image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components
installed. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
B. Create an automation account.
C. Upload a configuration script.
D. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
E. Create an Azure policy.
Correct Answer: AD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template
QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers
that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other Identity Governance settings are
available.
Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You create an access package.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You do not use access packages for Identity Governance. Instead, use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key
features of PIM include:
Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/governance/entitlement-management-overview
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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You are creating a canvas app that will be used in several countries/regions.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
…
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Microsoft PL-900 Practice testing questions from Youtube
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QUESTION 1
A company plans to create a canvas app that connects to three databases with different proprietary database formats.
What is the minimum number of connectors required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-data-sources
QUESTION 2
You are a sales representative. You create a Power BI report to visualize data from a Microsoft Excel workbook.
Users need to be able to view and share the report.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Pin the report to a dashboard.
B. Export the data.
C. Publish the dashboard.
D. Share the dashboard.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/service-dashboard-pin-live-tile-from-report
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/collaborate-share/service-share-dashboards#limitations-and-considerations
QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You build a flow using a template. You want to add support for additional business scenarios.
You need to ensure that the new workflow does not break existing functionality.
Which flow editing utilities should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct requirements. Each tool
maybe used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:![[2021.1] lead4pass pl-900 exam questions q3](https://www.micvce.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/q3-2.jpg)
Box 1: Flow Checker The Flow checker feature will promote higher quality flows by ensuring you follow best practices.
By running the checker, you will be able to get answers to questions like which areas of my flow implementation pose a
performance or reliability risk?
For each issue identified, the Flow checker points to specific occurrences within the flow where improvements may be
required. And more importantly, you learn how to implement these improvements by following detailed guidance.
Box 2: Test
Box 3: Test
Reference: https://flow.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/flow-checker-four-connectors/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerautomate/modern-approvals
QUESTION 4
You create a Power App portal.
When a user signs in to the portal the following error displays: User not found
You confirm that the user\\'s sign-in information is correct.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do?
A. Disable custom error messages.
B. Create a custom error message.
C. Enable diagnostic tools in Lifecycle Services.
D. Enable Maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/monitoringdiagnostics https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/user-logins
QUESTION 5
A company has a website. The website includes a form that allows the company to collect information about leads.
You need to set up an automated workflow to create leads in Dynamics 365 Sales when leads are created on the
company\\'s custom website.
What should you create?
A. Task Flow
B. Power Automate flow
C. Dynamics 365 workflow
D. Business Process Flow
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://trellispoint.com/create-crm-leads-using-microsoft-flow/
QUESTION 6
A company is using Power Automate to automate business processes. You need to run a flow when a user presses a
button in an app.
Which trigger type should you recommend?
A. Power Apps
B. for a selected row
C. manually trigger a flow
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management and Dynamics 365 Finance.
Account data must be synchronized between the two systems.
You need to ensure that the synchronized data is stored in one place.
What should you use?
A. Azure IoT Central
B. Azure Active Directory
C. SQL Server
D. Common Data Service
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/data-integrator
QUESTION 8
A company plans to use AI Builder to help improve business performance.
You need to determine which AI Models are available for use.
Which three types of models can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. linear regression
B. prediction
C. object detection
D. anomaly detection
E. text classification
Correct Answer: BCE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/model-types
QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a Power BI report.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:![[2021.1] lead4pass pl-900 exam questions q9](https://www.micvce.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/q9.jpg)
Box 1: Yes If you\\'d like to see the data that Power BI uses to create a visualization, you can display that data in Power
BI. You can also export that data to Excel as a .xlsx or .csv file. The option to export the data requires a Pro or
Premium license and edit permissions to the dataset and report.
Note: Export data from a Power BI dashboard
1.
Select the ellipsis in the upper-right corner of the visualization.
2.
Choose the Export data icon.
3.
Power BI exports the data to a .csv file. If you\\'ve filtered the visualization, then the app will filter the downloaded data.
4.
Your browser will prompt you to save the file. Once saved, open the .csv file in Excel.
Box 2: No
Underlying data: Select this option if you want to see the data in the visual and additional data from the model (see chart
below for details). If your visualization has an aggregate, selecting Underlying data removes the aggregate. When you
select Export, Power BI exports the data to a .xlsx file and your browser prompts you to save the file. Once saved,
open the file in Excel.
Box 3: Yes
A KPI dataset needs to contain goal values for a KPI. If your dataset doesn\\'t contain goal values, you can create them
by adding an Excel sheet with goals to your data model or PBIX file.
Note: A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a visual cue that communicates the amount of progress made toward a
measurable goal.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-export-data
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-kpi
QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
A company needs to create several workflows and applications to help streamline its sales operations.
You need to determine which applications are appropriate for given scenarios.
Which applications should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:![[2021.1] lead4pass pl-900 exam questions q10](https://www.micvce.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/q10.jpg)
Correct Answer:
![[2021.1] lead4pass pl-900 exam questions q10-1](https://www.micvce.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/q10-1.jpg)
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/getting-started https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-overview https://powerapps.microsoft.com/pl-pl/blog/business-model-may/
QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
A software company plans to use Power Automate.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:![[2021.1] lead4pass pl-900 exam questions q11](https://www.micvce.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/01/q11-2.jpg)
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/connectors/custom-connectors/share
QUESTION 12
What is the benefit of deploying Microsoft 365 and Dynamics 365 apps in the same tenant?
A. Use Common Data Services to connect to application data.
B. You only need to set up groups in Microsoft 365 for permissions to all data.
C. Users can access both Microsoft 365 and Dynamics 365 by using Single Sign-on (SSO).
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 13
A company uses Power Automate.
Which three items can trigger flows? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Lifecycle Services
B. Microsoft 365 Admin center
C. Common Data Service
D. Microsoft Outlook 365
E. Microsoft Windows Desktop
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/email-triggers https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerautomate/connection-cds https://dynamics365.wordpress.com/category/powerapps/
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Latest Update Isaca CISM Exam Questions and Answers Online Test
QUESTION 1
An information security manager has been assigned to implement more restrictive preventive controls. By doing so, the
net effect will be to PRIMARILY reduce the:
A. threat.
B. loss.
C. vulnerability.
D. probability.
Correct Answer: C
Implementing more restrictive preventive controls mitigates vulnerabilities but not the threats. Losses and probability of
occurrence may not be primarily or directly affected.
QUESTION 2
A project manager is developing a developer portal and requests that the security manager assign a public IP address
so that it can be accessed by in-house staff and by external consultants outside the organization\\'s local area network
(LAN). What should the security manager do FIRST?
A. Understand the business requirements of the developer portal
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment of the developer portal
C. Install an intrusion detection system (IDS)
D. Obtain a signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA) from the external consultants before allowing external access to the
server
Correct Answer: A
The information security manager cannot make an informed decision about the request without first understanding the
business requirements of the developer portal. Performing a vulnerability assessment of developer portal and installing
an intrusion detection system (IDS) are best practices but are subsequent to understanding the requirements. Obtaining
a signed nondisclosure agreement will not take care of the risks inherent in the organization\\'s application.
QUESTION 3
An information security manager is developing a new information security strategy.
Which of the following functions would serve as the BEST resource to review the strategy and provide guidance for
business alignment?
A. Internal audit
B. The steering committee
C. The legal department
D. The board of directors
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4
An incident response team has determined there is a need to isolate a system that is communicating with a known
malicious host on the Internet.
Which of the following stakeholders should be contacted FIRST?
A. Executive management
B. System administrator
C. Key customers
D. The business owner
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting members for an information security
steering committee?
A. Cross-functional composition
B. Information security expertise
C. Tenure in the organization
D. Business expertise
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6
The BEST defense against phishing attempts within an organization is: A. filtering of e-mail.
B. an intrusion protection system (IPS).
C. strengthening of firewall rules.
D. an intrusion detection system (IDS).
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7
Which of the following is MOST critical for an effective information security governance framework?
A. Board members are committed to the information security program.
B. Information security policies are reviewed on a regular basis.
C. The information security program is continually monitored.
D. The CIO is accountable for the information security program.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the potential impact of a successful attack on an organization\\'s
mission critical applications?
A. Conduct penetration testing.
B. Execute regular vulnerability scans.
C. Perform independent code review.
D. Perform application vulnerability review.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9
A border router should be placed on which of the following?
A. Web server
B. IDS server
C. Screened subnet
D. Domain boundary
Correct Answer: D
A border router should be placed on a (security) domain boundary. Placing it on a web server or screened subnet, which
is a demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not provide any protection. Border routers are positioned on the boundary of the
network, but do not reside on a server.
QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the BEST method to defend against social engineering attacks?
A. Periodically perform antivirus scans to identify malware.
B. Communicate guidelines to limit information posted to public sites.
C. Employ the use of a web-content filtering solution.
D. Monitor for unauthorized access attempts and failed logins.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11
An emergency change was made to an IT system as a result of a failure. Which of the following should be of
GREATEST concern to the organization\\'s information security manager?
A. The change did not include a proper assessment of risk.
B. Documentation of the change was made after implementation.
C. The information security manager did not review the change prior to implementation.
D. The operations team implemented the change without regression testing.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 12
During an incident, which of the following entities would MOST likely be contacted directly by an organization\\'s incident
response team without management approval?
A. Industry regulators
B. Technology vendor
C. Law enforcement
D. Internal audit
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13
The PRIORITY action to be taken when a server is infected with a virus is to:
A. isolate the infected server(s) from the network.
B. identify all potential damage caused by the infection.
C. ensure that the virus database files are current.
D. establish security weaknesses in the firewall.
Correct Answer: A
The priority in this event is to minimize the effect of the virus infection and to prevent it from spreading by removing the
infected server(s) from the network. After the network is secured from further infection, the damage assessment can be
performed, the virus database updated and any weaknesses sought.
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